I must admit, I am not very well oriented in NFT's – but I guess that even in such a case you can (and should) somehow proof that 1) a particular NFT had belonged to you and 2) you received $100k with some remittance information that it is the payment for named NFT. Am I wrong?
Bottom line:
I am well aware of the fact that abovementioned proofs can be – possibly – done only by means of advanced technologies that banks are not accustomed︀ to (and in many cases, not willing to accustom to).