Of course it’s legal. But if you spend 305 days in Poland and 60 days in Cyprus, where do you think you will be considered tax resident?
If Polish authorities suspects that you’re really living in Poland, do you think that when you tell them “I spent 60 days in Cyprus this year!”, there going to say “Oh, never mind then”? What is likely going to happen is that they will demand︀ proof where you spent every single day of the year.
Of course if you can︁ convince them that you fulfill the tie-breaker rules specified by article 4 in the DTA︂ (which basically means that you have closer ties to Cyprus than to Poland), you’re good.︃ But that’s not very likely if you spend 300 days in Poland.
If you spend︄ 60 days in Cyprus, less than 180 days in Poland etc., it could be a︅ different story.
So what I am saying is, when push comes to shove, your 60︆ days in Cyprus won’t matter. And if they won’t matter anyway, why even bother with︇ such a complicated setup. Any country would do because if they find out, you’re screwed︈ anyway. Ok, obviously, the more time you spend there, the better. So if you like︉ Cyprus, sure, spend 60 or 100 days there. It’ll be better than having Bulgarian residency︊ and never living there. I’m just saying that Bulgaria is probably easier and it might︋ also be easier to claim you were in Bulgaria and you drove across the border︌ (though not really because they’ll ask for receipts).
Most countries don’t have such a rule. Why would they? And even if they do,️ if you tell them you spend more than 183 days there, why would they challenge that? After all, it means that they are allowed to tax you.
Not even the UAE requires a minimum number of days in the country to consider you tax resident (provided you are resident) - only if you want a tax residency certificate. But in theory it’s enough to have residency even in the UAE.