Hello,
I have a few questions related to unwanted tax residency risk in Spain for people that have a second or third property in the country for vacation purposes only: I'm talking about a couple of weeks or up to 2-3 months stay per year maximum.
General Context/Situation:
I'm a national from a Western EU country, not Spain. I have formally left my country of citizenship almost 10 years ago and have no assets or connections there.
I have my primary base and residence permit in a low-tax Eastern European country A in the EU that has a DTA with Spain (but it seems that︀ the DTA is not even applicable to me personally because I'm not a national of︁ A).
I have income streams and business setups in country A and I spend anywhere︂ from 4 to 6 months per year of my time in country A.
I have︃ the right to request tax residency in country A based on center of vital interests︄ (but not obligation when < 183 days). Country A is not "aggressive", you literally have︅ to ask/request and get approval to be deemed a tax resident here.
I have a︆ second base/home in a latin American territorial tax country B where I spend 2-5 months︇ per year. Country B also has a DTA with Spain but unfortunately I do not︈ have personal tax residency rights in country B (183 days required and I don't want︉ to be there 6 months).
If I declare myself tax resident in country A then︊ I would need to pay tax on income generated in country B (and others worldwide)︋ which is not optimal.
My initial plan was to remain a nowhere tax resident by spending 4-5 months in country A, 4-5 months in country B and then traveling the︌ rest of the time.
Spanish Context/Situation:
However, I made the (probably bad) decision to add︍ a vacation property in Spain to spend the remaining 1-3 months of my time instead︎ of traveling around (was sick of airbnb's/hotels, wanted to stay in my own place).
I checked tax residency requirements on the web and I didn't notice any issues spending minimal️ time in a Spanish holiday home without having additional income streams or connections to the country.
I have a NIE and bankaccount in Spain now but I do not generate any income in Spain.
Unfortunately, it was only after buying the property that I started reading some of the horror stories about Spanish Hacienda on this forum 🙂
Potential problem: "sporadic absences" adding up to 183 days (in an absurd manner) AND not having a tax residence in another country could technically imply Spanish tax residency.
My Questions:
Consider this situation: I spend April in Spain. May to September in Country A (< 183 days). October and November in Spain again. The rest of the time in country B. So, 5︀ months in country A, 3 months in holiday property Spain and the remaining 4 months︁ in country B for the year.
- Question 1: Can Spain lawfully claim that the︂ period from May to September was a "sporadic absence" from Spain because I'm going back︃ a second time to my available property in the same tax year? So, they can︄ claim 3 months effective + 5 months sporadic absence = 8 months in Spain? (This︅ would be absurd!)
- Question 2: If yes to question 1, can I block the︆ sporadic absence 183+ days claim if I am a tax resident of country A but︇ I do not spend more than 183 days in country A (and the DTA is︈ also not applicable to me personally because I'm not a national of A)?
- Question︉ 3: If yes to question 1, can I block the sporadic absence 183+ days claim︊ if I am NOT a tax resident in country A but I spend more of︋ my time in country A versus Spain and have a real vital economic base with︌ substance there?
Can I protect myself against these sporadic absence 183 days tax claims somehow?︍ What's the exact definition/rules on these sporadic absence daycounts?
For example, can I do short-term︎ vacation renting with commercial license of the property when I'm not in Spain to block️ this risk? imo,"Sporadic absences" from Spain can logically only apply when someone has a permanent home available to return to and this is not the case when it is rented. Anyone up to date on Spanish tax law on the forum?
I have a few questions related to unwanted tax residency risk in Spain for people that have a second or third property in the country for vacation purposes only: I'm talking about a couple of weeks or up to 2-3 months stay per year maximum.
General Context/Situation:
I'm a national from a Western EU country, not Spain. I have formally left my country of citizenship almost 10 years ago and have no assets or connections there.
I have my primary base and residence permit in a low-tax Eastern European country A in the EU that has a DTA with Spain (but it seems that︀ the DTA is not even applicable to me personally because I'm not a national of︁ A).
I have income streams and business setups in country A and I spend anywhere︂ from 4 to 6 months per year of my time in country A.
I have︃ the right to request tax residency in country A based on center of vital interests︄ (but not obligation when < 183 days). Country A is not "aggressive", you literally have︅ to ask/request and get approval to be deemed a tax resident here.
I have a︆ second base/home in a latin American territorial tax country B where I spend 2-5 months︇ per year. Country B also has a DTA with Spain but unfortunately I do not︈ have personal tax residency rights in country B (183 days required and I don't want︉ to be there 6 months).
If I declare myself tax resident in country A then︊ I would need to pay tax on income generated in country B (and others worldwide)︋ which is not optimal.
My initial plan was to remain a nowhere tax resident by spending 4-5 months in country A, 4-5 months in country B and then traveling the︌ rest of the time.
Spanish Context/Situation:
However, I made the (probably bad) decision to add︍ a vacation property in Spain to spend the remaining 1-3 months of my time instead︎ of traveling around (was sick of airbnb's/hotels, wanted to stay in my own place).
I checked tax residency requirements on the web and I didn't notice any issues spending minimal️ time in a Spanish holiday home without having additional income streams or connections to the country.
I have a NIE and bankaccount in Spain now but I do not generate any income in Spain.
Unfortunately, it was only after buying the property that I started reading some of the horror stories about Spanish Hacienda on this forum 🙂
Potential problem: "sporadic absences" adding up to 183 days (in an absurd manner) AND not having a tax residence in another country could technically imply Spanish tax residency.
My Questions:
Consider this situation: I spend April in Spain. May to September in Country A (< 183 days). October and November in Spain again. The rest of the time in country B. So, 5︀ months in country A, 3 months in holiday property Spain and the remaining 4 months︁ in country B for the year.
- Question 1: Can Spain lawfully claim that the︂ period from May to September was a "sporadic absence" from Spain because I'm going back︃ a second time to my available property in the same tax year? So, they can︄ claim 3 months effective + 5 months sporadic absence = 8 months in Spain? (This︅ would be absurd!)
- Question 2: If yes to question 1, can I block the︆ sporadic absence 183+ days claim if I am a tax resident of country A but︇ I do not spend more than 183 days in country A (and the DTA is︈ also not applicable to me personally because I'm not a national of A)?
- Question︉ 3: If yes to question 1, can I block the sporadic absence 183+ days claim︊ if I am NOT a tax resident in country A but I spend more of︋ my time in country A versus Spain and have a real vital economic base with︌ substance there?
Can I protect myself against these sporadic absence 183 days tax claims somehow?︍ What's the exact definition/rules on these sporadic absence daycounts?
For example, can I do short-term︎ vacation renting with commercial license of the property when I'm not in Spain to block️ this risk? imo,"Sporadic absences" from Spain can logically only apply when someone has a permanent home available to return to and this is not the case when it is rented. Anyone up to date on Spanish tax law on the forum?